Now, let's use implicit differentiation to find derivatives of inverse functions.
Fact. Suppose that the function y=f(x) has unique inverse and has finite derivative f′(x)=0 then the derivative of the inverse function y=f−1(x) is (f−1(x))′=f′(f−1(x))1.
Proof.
Suppose that we have a function y=f−1(x). This means that f(y)=x.
Differentiating this equality implicitly with respect to x gives f′(y)y′=1 or y′=f′(y)1.
But y=f−1(x), so y′=f′(f−1(x))1.
Thus, (f−1(x))′=f′(f−1(x))1.
Now we can easily find derivative of inverse functions.
Example 1. Find derivative of logarithmic function y=loga(x).
Logarithmic function is inverse of exponential, so here f(x)=ax and f−1(x)=loga(x).
Since f′(x)=axln(a) then f′(f−1(x))=f′(loga(x))=aloga(x)ln(a)=xln(a).
So (f−1(x))′=f′(f−1(x))1=xln(a)1.
Therefore, (loga(x))′=xln(a)1.
Example 2. Find derivative of inverse sine function y=arcsin(x).
Inverse sine is inverse of sine function, so here f(x)=sin(x) and f−1(x)=arcsin(x).
Since f′(x)=cos(x) then f′(f−1(x))=f′(arcsin(x))=cos(arcsin(x)).
So (f−1(x))′=f′(f−1(x))1=cos(arcsin(x))1.
We can simplify cos(arcsin(x)).
Using the main trigonometric identity, we have that cos2(arcsin(x))+sin2(arcsin(x))=1.
From the properties of the inverse sine we know that sin(arcsin(x))=x. Also −2π≤arcsin(x)≤2π. That's why cos(arcsin(x)) should be positive, so cos(arcsin(x))=1−x2.